CTPRP PASS GUARANTEE - REALISTIC RELIABLE CERTIFIED THIRD-PARTY RISK PROFESSIONAL (CTPRP) EXAM TEST

CTPRP Pass Guarantee - Realistic Reliable Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Exam Test

CTPRP Pass Guarantee - Realistic Reliable Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Exam Test

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Tags: CTPRP Pass Guarantee, Reliable CTPRP Exam Test, Valid CTPRP Exam Objectives, Braindump CTPRP Pdf, CTPRP Real Exams

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Shared Assessments Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Sample Questions (Q300-Q305):

NEW QUESTION # 300
Which activity BEST describes conducting due diligence of a lower risk vendor?

  • A. Accepting a service providers self-assessment questionnaire responses
  • B. Preparing reports to management regarding the status of third party risk management and remediation activities
  • C. Reviewing a service provider's self-assessment questionnaire and external audit report(s)
  • D. Requesting and filing a service provider's external audit report(s) for future reference

Answer: A

Explanation:
Due diligence is the process of evaluating the risks and opportunities associated with a potential or existing third-party vendor. Due diligence can vary in scope and depth depending on the level of risk that the vendor poses to the organization. Lower risk vendors are those that have minimal impact on the organization's operations, reputation, or compliance, and that do not handle sensitive or confidential data or systems. For lower risk vendors, conducting due diligence may involve accepting the service provider's self-assessment questionnaire responses as sufficient evidence of their capabilities, performance, and compliance. A self-assessment questionnaire is a tool that allows the vendor to provide information about their organization, services, processes, controls, and policies. The organization can use the questionnaire to verify the vendor's identity, qualifications, references, and certifications, and to assess the vendor's alignment with the organization's standards and expectations. Accepting the vendor's self-assessment questionnaire responses as the primary source of due diligence can save time and resources for the organization, and can also demonstrate trust and confidence in the vendor. However, the organization should also ensure that the questionnaire is comprehensive, relevant, and updated, and that the vendor's responses are accurate, complete, and consistent.
The organization should also reserve the right to request additional information or documentation from the vendor if needed, and to conduct periodic reviews or audits of the vendor's performance and compliance.
The other options do not best describe conducting due diligence of a lower risk vendor, because they either involve more extensive or rigorous methods of due diligence, or they are not directly related to due diligence.
Preparing reports to management regarding the status of third party risk management and remediation activities is an important part of monitoring and managing the vendor relationship, but it is not a due diligence activity per se. Reviewing a service provider's self-assessment questionnaire and external audit report(s) is a more thorough way of conducting due diligence, but it may not be necessary or feasible for lower risk vendors, especially if the external audit report(s) are not readily available or relevant. Requesting and filing a service provider's external audit report(s) for future reference is a good practice for maintaining documentation and evidence of due diligence, but it is not a due diligence activity itself.
References:
* Third Party Risk Management (TPRM) | Shared Assessments
* Vendor Due Diligence Strategy Guide and Checklist | Prevalent
* Vendor due diligence: a practical guide and checklist


NEW QUESTION # 301
During a contract review with a software vendor, what would be a primary focus to mitigate performance risk?

  • A. Review of vendor's financial health and stability
  • B. Vendor's compliance with relevant regulatory standards
  • C. Alignment of vendor's capabilities with service requirements
  • D. Ensuring the vendor has adequate cybersecurity measures

Answer: C

Explanation:
During a contract review, focusing on the alignment of the vendor's capabilities with the specified service requirements helps in mitigating performance risk. This ensures that the vendor can meet the expected service delivery standards and adhere to the contract specifications.


NEW QUESTION # 302
Which requirement is NOT included in IT asset end-of-life (EOL) processes?

  • A. The requirement to track status using a change initiation request form
  • B. The requirement to conduct periodic risk assessments to determine end-of-life
  • C. The requirement to track updates to third party provided systems or applications for any planned end-of-life support
  • D. The requirement to establish defined procedures for secure destruction al sunset of asset

Answer: B

Explanation:
In IT asset end-of-life (EOL) processes, the requirement to conduct periodic risk assessments specifically to determine end-of-life is not typically included. EOL processes generally focus on managing the decommissioning and secure disposal of IT assets that have reached the end of their useful life or support period. This includes tracking the status of assets, managing updates and support for third-party systems and applications, and establishing procedures for the secure destruction of assets at sunset. While risk assessments are crucial in overall IT asset management, they are not usually a direct component of determining an asset's EOL status, which is more often based on operational effectiveness, manufacturer support, and technological obsolescence.
References:
* IT asset management and disposal best practices, such as those outlined in the NIST Guidelines for Media Sanitization (NIST SP 800-88), focus on the secure and environmentally responsible disposal of IT assets without specifically mandating periodic risk assessments for EOL determination.
* The "IT Asset Disposal (ITAD) Best Practice Guide" by the International Association of IT Asset Managers (IAITAM) provides insights into effective EOL processes, including tracking, updating, and securely destroying IT assets.


NEW QUESTION # 303
A large organization uses multiple channels to inform customers of a security incident. Which of the following is the least effective method for delivering urgent security notifications?

  • A. Using social media platforms for detailed updates
  • B. Posting a brief notice on the company website
  • C. Conducting a press conference to inform the public
  • D. Sending individual emails to affected clients

Answer: B

Explanation:
For urgent communications, a brief notice on the company website might not be as effective as more direct methods like emails or text messages. This option is less effective because it requires clients to visit the website proactively, which may delay the dissemination of crucial security information.


NEW QUESTION # 304
Scenario: An organization uses an application with extensive remote connectivity options. During a security review, what aspect should be the focal point to understand the potential risks?

  • A. Evaluate the licensing terms and conditions for any security implications
  • B. Assess the remote connectivity options to identify potential vulnerabilities
  • C. Examine the processing speed of the application to ensure efficiency
  • D. Review the customer support effectiveness for managing remote access issues

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer highlights that remote connectivity options are vital to understand potential vulnerabilities, as they can expose the application to unauthorized access or attacks if not properly secured.


NEW QUESTION # 305
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